Hello,
I’ve developed an MMM with a defensible response decomposition, ROAS, and channel contribution curves. Using sample_posterior_predictive
on a 13-week out-of-sample period, I observed a reasonable R-squared and low MAPE.
I read through the Budget Allocation documentation and tested it with 20% allocation bounds per channel. This resulted in an optimized budget allocation response of $22.7M, compared to $19.1M from the initial budget allocation and I measured a 18.7% lift.
As a sanity check, I reran the procedure with 0.001% allocation bounds per channel (attempting to keep the budget the same for both initial and optimized allocations), and the response totals were nearly identical to the 20% optimized trial. I calculated a 18.5% lift. What this indicates is that sample_posterior_predictive
and sample_response_distribution
produce drastically different response results from the same allocations. I’ve verified that the initial budget allocations for each channel are large enough to avoid the steepest part of the contribution curves, where small spend changes could have an outsized impact.
How can I diagnose what’s causing this discrepancy? Any insights would be greatly appreciated!